Good Morning Friends,

We are investigating, in our necessarily limited way, the question of how it is that Zionist know that God had, millennia ago, decreed that the land of Palestine belonged to the Jews; and if it was "His" will that they "possess" it in such a way that, on Yahweh's orders, specifically barred the Canaanites and then the Arab Palestinians from also possessing it or having the fully equal right of enjoyment of all the land. During the course of development of all the world's religions, communities received word about their god's instructions for them, state of feeling toward them, and various other updates, through the agency of prophets, seers, mystics, or whatever one would like to call particular sensitive, spiritually gifted individuals, who achieved the Transcendant state by means I have already alluded to.

What if we could, theoretically, determine somehow with certainty that the answer to the original question (Did God give the land of Palestine to the Jews?) was no? What would this mean? Would this mean that there is no God? Were some of the ancient Jewish prophets mistaken?

Among people who suscribe to divine prophecy, I don't think enough room is given for simple human error and how it can be compounded over generation after generation after generation after generation..., and there is no accounting for the funny ways that the human mind works. I hinted at my own view by citing the masterful book by Gopi Krishna, The Secret of Yoga. Let me give an example now.

Many, many, many years ago, on The Oprah Winfrey show there was a marriage counselor on. He was talking about something to do with marital communication or some such. What I remember most vividly, though, was a little exercise he put the married couples in the audience through.

He had them all stand up. The wives were given an object to hold in their fists. Then he told the husbands to get it from them. All of the husbands pried, wrenched, and tugged at their wives hands, trying to pull their fingers open and get the prize. This went on for an alloted period of time unitl the counselor brought it to a halt.

The thing that the marriage counselor pointed out, I hope to the chagrin of every one of the husbands, is that not one of them had even thought to merely ask their wives for the object. What does this mean?

It means that a person, or group of people, at the sound of an outside authoritative voice giving undefined instructions to acquire something, are prone to immediately taking the violent and coercive route. Not only that but I would venture to say that as the husbands were violently struggling against their wives, the object - in the minds of the husbands (an object they did not even know the identity of) - became their property. I would venture to say that they saw their wives resistance as recalcitrance and insolence. Again, not only that but I would additionally offer that during the tiny slice of time, the husband saw their wives as unjustly preventing them from coming into possession of something that "rightfully" belonged to them.

In that brief moment in time all the love, all the years of friendship and marriage, all their lives together, their children, all their shared hopes and dreams, fears, frustrations, setbacks, and tragedies went out the window in a struggle for power. And though I think the husbands would deny it out of embarassment, I am convinced this is so nevertheless. This exercise was most instructive and gives us pause for reflection, don't you think so?

Let me end this post with this question: Why didn't the ancient Jews, coming out of slavery in Egypt, go to the land of the Canaanites and simply ask to live their as full citizens? If accepted and if, later, they found their rights being abrogated, the appropriate response would have been to agitate politically for full rights.

Until next time

wingedcentaur